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Enhance Optometry Knowledge
Are you looking to boost your optometryl knowledge? Dive into our meticulously curated set of 50+ quiz questions designed to challenge and expand your understanding across various topics. These questions cover a wide range of subjects including anatomy, physiology, retinoscopy, Contact lenses and other important topics.
Whether you’re preparing for competitive exams or just looking to test your knowledge, this quiz is perfect for you. Each question is paired with detailed explanations to enhance your learning experience, ensuring you not only know the correct answers but also understand the reasoning behind them.
This quiz is a valuable resource for students, quiz enthusiasts, and anyone looking to stay informed. So, why wait? Challenge yourself and see how many you can get right! Engage with our quiz today and take the first step towards becoming a general knowledge master!
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Question 1: You are performing the dynamic retinoscopy on patient having their habitual working distance of 67 cm until you moved closer to 50 cm where you observed the neutralization. What is the patient’s subtractive error?
A) +1.50 DS
B) +2.00 DS
C) –1.50 DS
D) –2.00 DS
Explanation: वर्किंग डिस्टेंस 67 cm (1.5 D) से घटाकर 50 cm (2.0 D) किया गया, तो डिफरेंस है –0.5 D। परंतु न्यूट्रलाइजेशन 50 cm पर हुआ, तो 2.0 D subtract करना होगा। इसलिए subtractive error = –2.00 D
Question 2: If the retinoscopy revealed –5.00 –1.00 × 180 at working distance of 50 cm, what is the actual prescription?
A) –7.00 –1.00 × 180
B) –7.00 –1.50 × 180
C) –5.50 –1.00 × 180
D) –5.00 –3.00 × 180
Explanation: वर्किंग डिस्टेंस correction (2.00 D) spherical component में जोड़ा जाता है।
–5.00 + (–2.00) = –7.00 DS
परंतु यदि दोनों meridians पर subtraction किया जाए, तो cylindrical power भी प्रभावित होती है।
Question 3: The eye is neutralized with –1.00 D lens in the 90° meridian and +1.00 D lens in the 180° meridian at working distance of 50 cm. What is the most likely prescription for this eye?
A) +1.00 –2.00 × 90
B) –1.00 –2.00 × 90
C) +1.00 –2.00 × 180
D) –1.00 –2.00 × 180
Explanation: –1.00 D at 90° और +1.00 D at 180° → डिफरेंस = –2.00 D cyl at 90° axis
Spherical component = –1.00
तो Rx = –1.00 –2.00 × 90
Question 4: If the retinoscopy is done through +1.50 D lens, and the eye is neutralized in the other meridian and not neutralized in the principal meridian at a distance of 66 cm. The estimated refractive error is –2.50 D. What is the actual prescription?
A) –2.50 DS
B) –1.50 × 90
C) –2.50 –1.50 × 90
D) –1.50 –2.50 × 90
Explanation: Estimated error –2.50 D, trial lens +1.50 D से किया गया था, तो रियल पावर = –2.50 –1.50 = –4.00 D
Retinoscopy में दो meridians होते हैं, और एक neutralized है, एक नहीं, तो cyl भी आएगा।
Final Rx: –2.50 –1.50 × 90
Question 5: Plano lens is neutralized in one meridian and +1.50 D lens in the other meridian. The eye is neutralized at working distance of 66 cm. What is the most probable prescription?
A) Plano +1.00 × 90
B) Plano +2.00 × 90
C) Plano +1.00 × 180
D) Plano +2.00 × 180
Explanation: 66 cm = 1.50 D working distance
+1.50 D correction के साथ neutralization → actual power = plano + 2.00
Axis opposite to stronger power is written in Rx → Axis = 180°
Question 6: You are performing the fan dial test to estimate your patient's astigmatism. With proper blur, he suggests that the "5 o'clock (5 o'clock)" line is clearest on the fan dial. What is the axis of the correcting cylinder?
A) 60°
B) 90°
C) 120°
D) 150°
Explanation: Fan dial में जो लाइन सबसे क्लियर दिखाई देती है, उस पर cylinder axis का 90° ऐड कर के correct axis मिलता है।
5 o'clock = 150°, 150° + 90° = 240°, लेकिन 180° में ही limit होता है, इसलिए सही axis = 150°
Question 7: Your patient brought their spectacle Rx from her ophthalmology as shown below. What is the minus cylinder equivalent? Given: OD = –1.00 DS / +1.00 DC × 45°
A) Plano / –1.00 × 45°
B) Plano / –1.00 × 135°
C) –1.00 / –1.00 × 45°
D) –1.00 / –1.00 × 135°
Explanation: Given Rx is in plus cylinder form. Minus cylinder equivalent में बदलने के लिए:
Sphere = Sphere + Cylinder → –1.00 + 1.00 = 0.00
Cylinder = –1.00
Axis = 45° + 90° = 135°
→ Rx = Plano / –1.00 × 135°
Question 8: What is the minimum amplitude of accommodation expected for a 40-year-old patient?
A) 10 D
B) 8 D
C) 5 D
D) 2.5 D
Explanation: Duane's formula या Hofstetter's formula के अनुसार:
Minimum amplitude = 15 – 0.25 × Age
→ 15 – 0.25×40 = 5.00 D
Question 9: What is the most appropriate cycloplegic agent in the diagnosis of latent hyperopia?
A) Atropine
B) Homatropine
C) Cyclopentolate
D) Tropicamide
Explanation: Latent hyperopia को उजागर करने के लिए best agent है Cyclopentolate — अच्छी cycloplegia और short duration के कारण।
Question 10: When reading at near point through contact lenses in lieu of spectacles, a myope:
A) Will need to accommodate less
B) Will need to accommodate more
C) Will have no difference in stimulus to accommodate
D) Will have an indeterminate change in stimulus to accommodate
Explanation: Spectacles में accommodation demand कम होती है क्योंकि lenses आंख से दूर होते हैं। लेकिन contact lenses में lenses आंख के बहुत पास होते हैं, जिससे accommodation की मांग बढ़ जाती है।
Question 11: Herbert’s pits are seen in:
A) Trachoma
B) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C) Spring catarrh
D) Sarcoidosis
Explanation: Herbert’s pits are depression or pits seen at the limbus (corneal margin) due to healing of lymphoid follicles in trachoma — a chronic conjunctival infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
Question 12: Sunflower cataract is caused by:
A) Siderosis
B) Lead intoxication
C) Chalcosis
D) Silicosis
Explanation: Sunflower cataract is a specific type of lens opacity seen in copper deposition, especially in chalcosis bulbi (intraocular copper foreign body).
Question 13: A 50-year-old man has painful weeping rashes over the upper eyelid and forehead for the last 2 days, with ipsilateral punctate keratitis. Most likely diagnosis?
A) Impetigo
B) Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation: Painful vesicular rash in the ophthalmic (V1) division of trigeminal nerve, along with punctate keratitis, is classic of Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus (reactivation of Varicella Zoster Virus).
Question 14: Visible retinal arterial pulsation is seen in:
A) CRVO
B) CRAO
C) Raised IOP
D) Normal eye
Explanation: Retinal arterial pulsations can occasionally be seen in normal eyes, especially during ophthalmoscopy. It’s a physiological finding, unlike venous pulsation which is more common.
Question 15: Keratomalacia is associated with:
A) Measles
B) Rubella
C) Mumps
D) Chickenpox
Explanation: Keratomalacia (corneal softening) occurs in Vitamin A deficiency, and is commonly associated with measles due to increased demand and poor nutrition.
Question 16: Angry sun appearance is a feature of:
A) Primary optic atrophy
B) Papillitis
C) Papilledema
D) Drusen
Explanation: "Angry sun appearance" describes hyperemic optic disc with blurred margins, commonly seen in papilledema, indicating raised intracranial pressure.
Question 17: Symptoms of cataract include all of the following except:
A) Decreased vision in low illumination
B) Decreased vision in bright light
C) Glare
D) None of these
Explanation: In cataracts, vision generally worsens in dim light, not bright light. So bright light helps some types of cataracts temporarily, especially nuclear type.
Question 18: Which laser is used in the management of after-cataract?
A) Argon
B) Krypton
C) Nd:YAG
D) Excimer
Explanation: After-cataract (posterior capsular opacification) is treated with Nd:YAG (Neodymium-doped Yttrium Aluminum Garnet) laser capsulotomy, which creates an opening in the opacified capsule.
Question 19: The following is not a definitive feature of conjunctivitis:
A) Irritation
B) Discharge
C) Redness
D) Pain
Explanation: Pain is not typical of simple conjunctivitis. Pain suggests corneal or intraocular pathology, while conjunctivitis mainly presents with redness, discharge, irritation.
Question 20: Trichiasis is:
A) Permanent absence of eyelashes
B) Whitening of eyelashes
C) More than 4 lashes rubbing against cornea
D) Acute inflammation of the orbital soft tissue
Explanation: Trichiasis = inward misdirection of eyelashes that touch and irritate the cornea, may lead to ulcers or irritation.
Question 21: Imbert-Fick’s law states that the pressure inside a sphere (P) is equal to the force (F) multiplied by the area of flattening (A) — True or False?
A) True
B) False
C) None
D) All
Explanation: Imbert-Fick law is the principle behind applanation tonometry, used to measure intraocular pressure:
𝑃 = 𝐹/A
Question 22: When tested with the distance Worth Dot Test, how many dots would a 30 XT who is not suppressing report to see?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Explanation: Worth Four Dot Test में अगर कोई व्यक्ति exotropia (XT) से ग्रसित है लेकिन suppression नहीं कर रहा, तो वह दोनों आंखों से अलग-अलग डॉट्स देखेगा (2 + 3 = 5 dots), indicating diplopia (double vision)।
Question 23: Which of the following clinical instruments is utilized to measure corneal thickness?
A) Direct ophthalmoscope
B) Photokeratoscope
C) Pachymeter
D) Ophthalmodynamometer
Explanation: Pachymeter एक उपकरण है जिसका उपयोग corneal thickness को मापने के लिए किया जाता है, खासकर glaucoma evaluation और refractive surgery में।
Question 24: Visual field defect is detected by which instrument?
A) Keratometer
B) Biometer
C) Perimeter
D) Topographer
Explanation: Perimetry = visual field testing, जिसमें व्यक्ति की peripheral vision loss को detect किया जाता है (जैसे glaucoma या neurological conditions में)।
Question 25: The ophthalmoscope was invented by:
A) Babbage
B) Von-Helmholtz
C) Goldmann
D) Lister
Explanation: Hermann von Helmholtz ने 1851 में ophthalmoscope का आविष्कार किया था, जिससे retina की direct observation संभव हुई।
Question 26: Radius of curvature of the posterior cornea can be detected by the Keratometer?
A) True
B) False
C) None
D) All
Explanation: Keratometer केवल anterior corneal surface की curvature measure करता है, posterior surface नहीं। Posterior cornea को assess करने के लिए advanced tools जैसे Scheimpflug imaging या OCT चाहिए।
Question 27: What does ETDRS stand for?
A) Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy Study
B) Easy Treatment Red Dots Study
C) None of these
D) A and B
Explanation: ETDRS एक landmark clinical trial था जिसने diabetic retinopathy के management और vision chart (ETDRS chart) की foundation रखी।
Question 28: What is the logarithmic score of each letter on the logMAR chart?
A) 0.01
B) 0.02
C) 0.1
D) 0.2
Explanation: logMAR चार्ट पर एक लाइन में आमतौर पर 5 अक्षर होते हैं और हर लाइन का अंतर 0.1 होता है।
तो प्रत्येक अक्षर = 0.1 / 5 = 0.02 logMAR units।
Question 29: Patient complaining after dilated fundus examination that he is experiencing pain around the eye, halos around lights, and headache. You would suspect:
A) Migraine
B) Acute angle closure glaucoma
C) Increase in blood pressure
D) Gastrointestinal upset
Explanation: Dilation के बाद acute angle closure glaucoma trigger हो सकता है, जिसमें eye pain, halos around light, redness, headache, nausea आदि लक्षण दिखते हैं।
Question 30: The cycloplegic that produces the shortest duration of cycloplegia is:
A) 1% Atropine
B) 0.5% Scopolamine
C) 1% Tropicamide
D) 1% Cyclopentolate
Explanation: Tropicamide की cycloplegic action केवल 4–6 घंटे तक रहती है। इसलिए सबसे कम अवधि वाली cycloplegic drug है।
Question 31: In an acute angle closure where the patient is nauseated and vomiting, the drug of choice is:
A) 50% Glycerol 1 ml/kg po
B) Acetazolamide 500 mg po
C) 20% Mannitol IV
D) Pilocarpine
Explanation: Vomiting वाले मरीज को oral drug देना मुश्किल होता है, इसलिए emergency में IV Mannitol best choice है → rapid IOP lowering.
Question 32: Which powers are commonly available for soft contact lenses?
A) –1.00 to –1.50
B) –0.75 to –1.25
C) –1.50 to –2.00
D) None of these
Explanation: Soft contact lenses usually come in steps like –0.25 D, and range from –0.50 D to –12.00 D or more. Given options incomplete हैं, इसलिए सही उत्तर है None of these.
Question 33: When a myopic person switches from spectacles to contact lenses, their convergence for near objects:
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Remains the same
D) Cannot be determined
Explanation: Spectacles की तुलना में contact lenses आंख के ज्यादा करीब होते हैं, जिससे image nearer retinal plane पर बनती है → less convergence needed for near work.
Question 34: When myopic switch from spectacles to contact lenses, the effective back vertex power: Options:
A) Becomes more minus
B) Becomes less minus
C) Remains the same
D) Becomes more plus
Explanation: Spectacle lenses आंख से दूर होते हैं (vertex distance ~12 mm), इसलिए ज्यादा minus power की जरूरत होती है। लेकिन contact lens आंख के करीब होने से कम minus power sufficient होती है।
Question 35: Suppose spectacle power is OD = –6.50 D and vertex distance is 14 mm. What will be estimated contact lens power?
A) –6.00 D
B) –6.50 D
C) –7.00 D
D) –5.50 D
Explanation: Myopic lenses को contact lens में बदलते समय हमें power कम करनी होती है।
For –6.50 D @ 14 mm vertex distance, contact lens power approx –6.00 D होती है।
Question 36: Why is contact lens power different from spectacle power?
A) Due to difference in refractive index
B) Due to the difference in distance between eye and lens
C) Due to the lens difference in curvature
D) Due to the difference in thickness of the lens
Explanation: Spectacle lenses की vertex distance ~12–14 mm होती है, जबकि contact lens आंख की cornea पर directly बैठता है। यह positional difference ही power बदलने का मुख्य कारण होता है।
Question 37: The rotational movement around the antero-posterior axis... both the cornea tilts downward.
A) Dextrocycloversion
B) Levocycloversion
C) Dextrodepression
D) Dextroelevation
Explanation: Cycloversion refers to the torsional (rotational) movement of both eyes together.
Dextrocycloversion is the rotation of both eyes around the anteroposterior axis such that the upper poles of the corneas tilt to the right.
Question 38: Which of the following is the example of monocular movement?
A) Dextrocycloversion
B) Levoversion
C) Dextroelevation
D) Dextrodepression
Explanation: Monocular movements refer to movement of one eye only.
Dextrodepression means downward and rightward movement of one eye.
Other options like versions (e.g. cycloversion, levoversion) are binocular movements.
Question 39: What is the secondary action of the Inferior Rectus Muscle?
A) Adduction
B) Extorsion
C) Depression
D) None of these
Explanation: Primary action of Inferior Rectus: Depression
Secondary actions: Extorsion and Adduction
Hence, correct answer is Extorsion
Question 40: Which of the following is the example of Intra-ocular muscle?
A) Levator palpebrae superioris
B) Ciliary muscle
C) Inferior tarsal muscle
D) Medial rectus
Explanation: Intraocular muscles include: Ciliary muscle, sphincter pupillae, and dilator pupillae.
Question 41: Which of the examples of the monocular movement?
A) Levoversion
B) Dexteoversion
C) Divergence
D) Abduction
Explanation: Monocular eye movements involve the movement of one eye at a time. Here's the classification of the given terms:
Levoversion – Binocular movement (both eyes move to the left)
Dextroversion – Binocular movement (both eyes move to the right)
Divergence – Binocular movement (both eyes move outward, away from the nose)
Abduction – Monocular movement (one eye moving outward, away from the nose)
So, Abduction is an example of a monocular movement.
Question 42: Stereoscopic depth that is based on the images that can be recognized monocularly as well as binocularly is called?
A) Local stereopsis
B) Global stereopsis
C) Both A and B
D) None
Explanation: Local stereopsis is depth perception based on small disparities visible with one eye.
Global stereopsis requires both eyes and a broader integration of the visual field.
जब दोनों ही प्रकार की स्टेरियोप्सिस शामिल हों, तो सही उत्तर होगा: "Both A and B".
Question 43: How many grades of Binocular vision are there?
A) 1 grades
B) 2 grades
C) 3 grades
D) 4 grades
Explanation: Binocular vision के तीन ग्रेड होते हैं:
Simultaneous perception
Fusion
Stereopsis
Question 44: Binocular single vision presents since birth?
A) True
B) False
C) Don't understand
D) Don't understand
Explanation: Binocular single vision जन्म के समय उपस्थित नहीं होता है। यह approximately 3-6 months की उम्र में विकसित होता है।
Question 45: Vision of two eyes without coordination is called?
A) Monocular vision
B) Bi-ocular vision
C) Binocular
D) None
Explanation: जब दोनों आँखें एक साथ coordinated नहीं होतीं, तब उसे monocular vision कहा जाता है। Coordination होने पर उसे binocular या bi-ocular vision कहते हैं।
Question 46: Anterior chamber depth
A) Increase with age
B) Is lesser in women's
C) Is lesser in Myopes
D) Has hardly any effect on anterior chamber volume
Explanation: Anterior chamber की depth का volume पर कुछ असर होता है, लेकिन वह बहुत अधिक नहीं होता।
Question 47: Corneal endothelial cell count is done by –
A) Specular microscopy
B) Gonioscopy
C) Keratometry
D) Slit lamp
Explanation: Specular microscopy non-invasive technique है जिसका उपयोग corneal endothelium की cell density और morphology देखने के लिए किया जाता है।
Question 48: All visual sulcus are developed by –
A) 1 years
B) 2 years
C) 5 years
D) 10 years
Explanation: Visual sulci (related to visual development in the brain) आमतौर पर जन्म के बाद 5 वर्ष तक पूरी तरह विकसित हो जाते हैं।
Question 49: Which part of orbicularis oculi is known as Horner's muscle?
A) Orbital
B) Temporal
C) Lacrimal
D) Muller's Muscles
Explanation: Horner’s muscle, also called the lacrimal part of orbicularis oculi, lacrimal sac के पास होता है और tear drainage में मदद करता है।
Question 50: Most sensitive part of eye is –
A) Fovea centralis
B) Macula
C) Blind spot
D) Temporal retina
Explanation: Fovea centralis retina का वह भाग है जहाँ cones की सबसे अधिक density होती है, जिससे यह vision के लिए सबसे अधिक sensitive होता है।
Question 51: The short posterior ciliary arteries are about –
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
Explanation: Short posterior ciliary arteries की संख्या लगभग 15–20 होती है और ये optic nerve के चारों ओर स्थित होती हैं।
Question 52: Sphincter and dilator pupillae muscles are derived embryologically from the –
A) Surface Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Neuroectoderm
D) None
Explanation: Eye की internal smooth muscles, जैसे sphincter और dilator pupillae, neuroectoderm से विकसित होते हैं।
Question 53: Continuous grow life time?
A) Cornea
B) Iris
C) Lens
D) Retina
Explanation: Among the given options, the lens is the only structure in the eye that continues to grow throughout life.
Question 54: For the treatment of Herpes zoster, valacyclovir is administered
A) 500 mg (1 gram) three times a day for 7 days
B) 500 mg bid for 10 days
C) 500 mg bid for 3 days
D) 1000 mg once
Explanation: 1000 mg three times daily for 7 days
Question 55: Which of the following when administered unilaterally for open-angle glaucoma will produce a decrease of IOP in the contralateral eye --
A) Epinephrine
B) Pilocarpine
C) Timolol
D) Latanoprost
Explanation: Timolol, एक beta-blocker है जो systemic absorption के बाद contralateral eye में भी intraocular pressure (IOP) कम करता है, भले ही एक ही आँख में लगाया गया हो।
Question 56: One of the adverse effects of topical steroid therapy is –
A) Posterior subcapsular Cataract
B) Band Keratopathy
C) Giant papillary conjunctivitis
D) Neovascularization
Explanation: Topical steroids के chronic use से ocular side-effects हो सकते हैं, जिनमें Giant Papillary Conjunctivitis (GPC), cataract formation, और secondary glaucoma शामिल हैं।
Question 57: A patient presented with bilateral stellate cataracts. The drug most probably responsible is –
A) Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
B) Alomoxetine (Strattera)
C) Phenobarbital (Luminal)
D) Amphetamine (Dexedrine)
Explanation: Alomoxetine (Strattera), एक norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor है, और इसके long-term use से bilateral stellate cataracts develop हो सकते हैं। (Stellate = star-shaped opacity in lens)
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