Top 35 Optometry MCQs
In the field of ophthalmology and optometry, mastering clinical diagnostics is essential for providing accurate patient care. From identifying refractive errors through Retinoscopy to analyzing the electrical responses of the retina via Electroretinography (ERG), an optometrist must possess a deep understanding of both technical procedures and ocular anatomy.
This post is designed as a comprehensive resource for students and practicing professionals aiming to sharpen their clinical knowledge and excel in competitive recruitment or academic examinations.
This practice set features 35 high-yield multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering a wide spectrum of essential topics, including Toric lens transposition, the mechanics of Mydriatic and Cycloplegic drugs, and advanced Retinoscopy techniques. Each question is accompanied by a detailed explanation to help you bridge the gap between theory and practice, ensuring you understand the "why" behind every answer. Dive in to evaluate your current proficiency and strengthen your conceptual foundation in these core optometric disciplines.
Start Quizzes [MCQs]
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Q. 1: Which of the following test not for used to visual field testing ?
A) Perimetry
B) Tonometry
C) Amsler grid Test
D) Electroretinography (ERG)
EXPLANATION: Tonometry is used for IOP mmeasurement of the eyeball.
Q. 2: What is the full form of "AMD" ?
A) Age-related Macular Degeneration
B) Amino Modified Disease
C) Age-related Myopic Disease
D) None of these
EXPLANATION: Age-related Macular Degeneration is the full form of "AMD".
Q. 3: Which of the following option is incorrect about ERG ?
A) ERG= Electroretinography/Electroretinogram
B) Measure electrical response of Retina
C) 3 type waves generate
D) 4 type waves generate
EXPLANATION: In ERG, three types wave generate from retina's light sensitive cells (a, b, and c- wave).
Q. 4: What is full form of "PMT" ?
A) Plus Minus Transposition
B) Post Mydriatics Test
C) Pre Mydriatics Test
D) None of these
EXPLANATION: Post Mydriatics Test is full form of "PMT".
Q. 5: During ERG Test, a-wave (negative wave) arising from ?
A) Rods and cones
B) Muller cells
C) Bipolar cells
D) Retinal pigmented epithelium
EXPLANATION: During ERG Test, a-wave (negative wave) arising from rods and cones.
Q. 6: During ERG Test, b-wave (large positive wave) arising from ?
A) Rods and cones
B) Muller cells and bipolar calls
C) Ganglion cells
D) Retinal pigmented epithelium
EXPLANATION: During ERG Test, b-wave (large positive wave) arising from muller cells but representes activity of the bipolar calls.
Q. 7: What is full form of "BCVA" ?
A) Bi-cancave Visual Acuity
B) Better Corrected Visual Acuity
C) Both Corrected Visual Acuity
D) Best Corrected Visual Acuity
EXPLANATION: Best Corrected Visual Acuity is full form of "BCVA".
Q. 8: During ERG Test, c-wave (positive wave) arising from ?
A) Rods and cones
B) Muller cells and bipolar calls
C) Ganglion cells
D) Retinal pigmented epithelium
EXPLANATION: During ERG Test, c-wave (positive wave) arising from retinal pigmented epithelium and represents it's metabolic activity.
Q. 9: What is a toric lens ?
A) Concavo-convex lens
B) Sphero-concave lens
C) Sphero-cylindrical lens
D) Cylindrical convex lens
EXPLANATION: A a toric lens is Sphero-cylindrical lens, which is made of combination of a spherical and a cylindrical lens.
Q. 10: Why a toric lens used ?
A) Correction for astigmatism
B) Correction for myopia
C) Astigmatism with myopia/hypermetropia
D) Presbyopia
EXPLANATION: A toric lens used is used for correction to astigmatism with myopia or hypermetropia.
Q. 11: How many types of transposition ?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
EXPLANATION: Two types (Simple and Toric) of transposition used.
Q. 12: What is occur in Transposition ?
A) Exchange Eyeball
B) Exchange spherical lens power
C) Exchange toric lens power
D) Transplant of Cornea
EXPLANATION: Transposition is the technical formula / method to exchange toric lenses power from one to another.
Q. 13: Which of the following symptom is not seen in Horner's syndrome ?
A) Cataract
B) Decreased pupil size and sweating
C) Affected one side of face's nerve
D) Drooping eyelid
EXPLANATION: Cataract is not seen in Horner's syndrome.
Q. 14: Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Mydriasis ?
A) Mydriasis= Pupil constriction
B) Mydriasis= Pupil dilation
C) Mydriatic= Drugs used for mydriasis
D) E.g. Tropicamide 0.5-1%, Homatropine 10%
EXPLANATION: Pupil constriction is called Miosis.
Q. 15: Which of the following drugs purely mydriatic ?
A) Tropicamide 0.5-1%
B) Phenylephrine HCL 2.5-10%
C) Homatropine 10%
D) Cyclopentolate 1%
EXPLANATION: Phenylephrine HCL 2.5-10% is purely mydriatic and it's has no capacity of cycloplegia.
Q. 16: Which of the following drug used to diagnose Horner's syndrome ?
A) Atropine 1%
B) Tropicamide 0.5-1%
C) Homatropine 10%
D) Cocaine
EXPLANATION: Phenylephrine HCL 1% is called cocaine.
Q. 17: What are the following clinical indications of Mydriatic ?
A) Mydriasis and Fundoscopy
B) Treatment for Uveitis and Glaucoma
C) In Intraocular surgery
D) All of these
EXPLANATION: All of these and diagnose Horner's syndrome are clinical indications of Mydriatic. In uveitis, it's prevent formation of posterior synechiae.
Q. 18: Which of the following statement is incorrect about the cycloplegia ?
A) Cycloplegia= Paralysis of iris
B) Cycloplegia= Paralysis of ciliary muscles
C) Cycloplegics= Drugs used for cycloplegia
D) E.g. Tropicamide 0.5-1%, Homatropine 5%
EXPLANATION: Cycloplegia refer to paralysis of ciliary muscles.
Q. 19: What are the following clinical indications of Cycloplegics ?
A) Treatment for uveitis, photophobia
B) Prevent formation of posterior synechia
C) For loss of accommodation
D) All of these
EXPLANATION: All of these, pre and post cycloplegic refraction are clinical indications of Cycloplegics.
Q. 20: Which are the following drugs used for Cycloplegia ?
A) Tropicamide 0.5-1% and Cyclopentolate 1%
B) Atropine 1%
C) Homatropine 5%
D) All of these
EXPLANATION: Shortest acting= Tropicamide 0.5-1% and Longest acting= Atropine 1%
Q. 21: Which of the following options incorrect about Retinoscopy ?
A) Used for objective refraction
B) F. Cuigent (1873) it's father
C) Used for testing Retina
D) Neutralization based technique
EXPLANATION: For seeing retina, used fundoscopy through ophthalmoscope.
Q. 22: During retinoscopy, where examiner can see red reflex ?
A) On iris
B) On retina
C) On pupillary region
D) None of these
EXPLANATION: During retinoscopy, examiner can see red reflex on pupillary region.
Q. 23: During retinoscopy, how meny types of red reflex examiner can see, when sweeping the retinoscope ?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
EXPLANATION: When examiner sweep retinoscope, 4 types of red reflex can see- No movement, With movement, Same movement, Scissors movement.
Q. 24: During retinoscopy, when examiner see with movement of red reflex, then which type of lens used for neutralization ?
A) Convex spherical lens
B) Concave spherical lens
C) Cylindrical lens
D) Prism lens
EXPLANATION: During retinoscopy, when examiner see with movement of red reflex, then convex (plus) spherical lens used for neutralization.
Q. 25: During retinoscopy, when examiner see against movement of red reflex, then which type of lens used for neutralization ?
A) Convex spherical lens
B) Concave spherical lens
C) Cylindrical lens
D) Prism lens
EXPLANATION: During retinoscopy, when examiner see with movement of red reflex, then concave (minus) spherical lens used for neutralization.
Q. 26: During retinoscopy, when examiner see scissors movement of red reflex, then which type of refractive error can present ?
A) Myopia
B) Regular astigmatism
C) Hypermetropia
D) Irregular astigmatism
EXPLANATION: Scissors movement represent irregular astigmatism that have poor visual acuity with spectacle.
Q. 27: During retinoscopy, no movement of red reflex represent ?
A) Myopia/Hypermetropia less than 1D
B) Myopia of 1D
C) Myopia more then 1D
D) None of these
EXPLANATION: During retinoscopy, no movement of red reflex represent myopia of 1D
Q. 28: During retinoscopy, with movement of red reflex represent ?
A) Myopia/Hypermetropia less than 1D
B) Myopia of 1D
C) Myopia more then 1D
D) None of these
EXPLANATION: During retinoscopy, with movement of red reflex represent Myopia or Hypermetropia less than 1D
Q. 29: During retinoscopy, against movement of red reflex represent ?
A) Myopia/Hypermetropia less than 1D
B) Myopia of 1D
C) Myopia more then 1D
D) None of these
EXPLANATION: During retinoscopy, against movement of red reflex represent myopia more then 1D
Q. 30: During retinoscopy, how meny types of red reflex examiner can see, when oblique motion of the retinoscope ?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
EXPLANATION: When examiner sweep retinoscope, 0 types of red reflex can see- On axis movement and Off axis movement.
Q. 31: During retinoscopy, when examiner see On axis movement of red reflex, then which type of lens used for neutralization ?
A) Convex spherical lens
B) Concave spherical lens
C) Convex cylindrical lens
D) Prism lens
EXPLANATION: During retinoscopy, when examiner see On axis movement of red reflex, then convex (plus) cylindrical lens used for neutralization.
Q. 32: During retinoscopy, when examiner off axis movement of red reflex, then which type of lens used for neutralization ?
A) Convex spherical lens
B) Concave spherical lens
C) Concave cylindrical lens
D) Convex cylindrical lens
EXPLANATION: During retinoscopy, when examiner see off axis movement of red reflex, then concave (minus) cylindrical lens used for neutralization.
Q. 33: During retinoscopy, which of the following is correct about working distance ? (N.P.P.= Neutral Point Power)
A) Done at 67 cm= subtract 1.5D from N.P.P.
B) Done at 50 cm= subtract 2D from N.P.P.
C) Done at 100 cm= subtract 1D from N.P.P.
D) All of these
EXPLANATION: All of the options correct.
Q. 34: During retinoscopy, which of the following is correct about cycloplegia when used ?
A) Atropine sulphate 1% / Less then 5 Y / 1D
B) Homatropine hydrobromide 1% / 5-8 Y / 0.5D
C) Cyclopentolate HCL 1% / 9-20 Y and above / 0.75D
D) All of these
EXPLANATION: All of the options correct.
Q. 35: Which of the following is incorrect full form ?
A) UCVA = Uncorrected visual acuity
B) OD= Left eye, OS= Right eye, OU= Both eye
C) CSM= Central study maintained
D) CSUM= Central study unmaintained
EXPLANATION: OD= Right eye, OS= Left eye, OU= Both eye; are correct.
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